<SPAN name="toc236" id="toc236"></SPAN>
<SPAN name="pdf237" id="pdf237"></SPAN>
<SPAN name="Book_III_Chapter_XX" id="Book_III_Chapter_XX" class="tei tei-anchor"></SPAN>
<h2><span>Chapter XX. Of The Competition Of Different Countries In The Same Market.</span></h2>
<SPAN name="toc238" id="toc238"></SPAN>
<h3><span>§ 1. Causes which enable one Country to undersell another.</span></h3>
<p>
In the phraseology of the Mercantile System, there
is no word of more frequent recurrence or more perilous import
than the word <em class="tei tei-emph"><span style="font-style: italic">underselling</span></em>. To undersell other countries—not
to be undersold by other countries—were spoken
of, and are still very often spoken of, almost as if they were
the sole purposes for which production and commodities
exist.</p>
<span style="font-size: 90%">
Nations may, like individual dealers, be competitors, with
opposite interests, in the markets of some commodities, while
in others they are in the more fortunate relation of reciprocal
customers. The benefit of commerce does not consist, as it
was once thought to do, in the commodities sold; but, since
the commodities sold are the means of obtaining those which
are bought, a nation would be cut off from the real advantage
of commerce, the imports, if it could not induce other
nations to take any of its commodities in exchange; and in
proportion as the competition of other countries compels it
to offer its commodities on cheaper terms, on pain of not
selling them at all, the imports which it obtains by its foreign
trade are procured at greater cost.
</span>
<p>
One country (A) can only undersell another (B) in a
given market, to the extent of entirely expelling her from it,
on two conditions: (1) In the first place, she (A) must have
a greater advantage than the second country (B) in the production
of the article exported by both; meaning by a greater
advantage (as has been already so fully explained) not absolutely,
but in comparison with other commodities; and (2)
in the second place, such must be her (A's) relation with the
customer-country in respect to the demand for each other's
products, and such the consequent state of international
values, as to give away to the customer-country more than
the whole advantage possessed by the rival country (B); otherwise
the rival will still be able to hold her ground in the
market.</p>
<span style="font-size: 90%">
Let us suppose a trade between England and the United
States, in iron and wheat. England being capable of producing
ten cwts. of iron at the same cost as fifteen bushels of
wheat, the United States at the same cost as twenty bushels,
and the two commodities being exchanged between the two
countries (cost of carriage apart) at some intermediate rate, say
ten for seventeen. The United States could not be permanently
undersold in the English market, and expelled from it,
unless by a country (such as India) which offered not merely
more than seventeen, but more than twenty bushels of wheat
for ten cwts. of iron. Short of that, the competition would
only oblige the United States to pay dearer for iron, but would
not disable her from exporting wheat. The country, therefore,
which could undersell the United States, must, in the first
place, be able to produce wheat at less cost, compared with
iron, than the United States herself; and, in the next place,
must have such a demand for iron, or other English commodities,
as would compel her, even when she became sole occupant
of the market, to give a greater advantage to England than the
United States could give by resigning the whole of hers; to
give, for example, twenty-one bushels for ten cwts. For if
not—if, for example, the equation of international demand,
after the United States was excluded, gave a ratio of eighteen
for ten—the United States would be now the underselling nation;
and there would be a point, perhaps nineteen for ten, at
which both countries would be able to maintain their ground,
and to sell in England enough wheat to pay for the iron, or
other English commodities, for which, on these newly adjusted
terms of interchange, they had a demand. In like manner,
England, as an exporter of iron, could only be driven from the
American market by some rival whose superior advantages in
the production of iron enabled her, and the intensity of whose
demand for American produce compelled her, to offer ten cwts.
of iron, not merely for less than seventeen bushels of wheat,
but for less than fifteen. In that case, England could no
longer carry on the trade without loss; but, in any case short
</span><span style="font-size: 90%">
of this, she would merely be obliged to give to the United
States more iron for less wheat than she had previously given.</span><SPAN id="noteref_288" name="noteref_288" href="#note_288"><span class="tei tei-noteref"><span style="font-size: 60%; vertical-align: super">288</span></span></SPAN>
<p>
It thus appears that the alarm of being permanently
undersold may be taken much too easily; may be taken
when the thing really to be anticipated is not the loss of the
trade, but the minor inconvenience of carrying it on at a
diminished advantage; an inconvenience chiefly falling on
the consumers of foreign commodities, and not on the producers
or sellers of the exported article. It is no sufficient
ground of apprehension to the [American] producers, to find
that some other country can sell [wheat] in foreign markets,
at some particular time, a trifle cheaper than they can themselves
afford to do in the existing state of prices in [the
United States]. Suppose them to be temporarily unsold, and
their exports diminished; the imports will exceed the exports,
there will be a new distribution of the precious metals,
prices will fall, and, as all the money expenses of the
[American] producers will be diminished, they will be able
(if the case falls short of that stated in the preceding paragraph)
again to compete with their rivals.</p>
<p>
The loss which [the United States] will incur will not fall
upon the exporters, but upon those who consume imported
commodities; who, with money incomes reduced in amount,
will have to pay the same or even an increased price for all
things produced in foreign countries.</p>
<span style="font-size: 90%">
But the business world would regard what was going on
under economic laws as a great and dreaded disaster, if it
meant that prices were to fall, and gold leave the country.
Those holding large stocks of goods would for that time suffer;
and so, at first, it might really happen that </span><span class="tei tei-q"><span style="font-size: 90%">“</span><span style="font-size: 90%">exporters,</span><span style="font-size: 90%">”</span></span><span style="font-size: 90%"> in the
sense of exporting agents (not the producers, perhaps, of the
exportable article), would incur a loss. In the end, of course,
the consumers of imports suffer. But, temporarily, and on the
face of it, exporters do lose.
</span>
<SPAN name="toc239" id="toc239"></SPAN>
<h3><span>§ 2. High wages do not prevent one Country from underselling another.</span></h3>
<p>
According to the preceding doctrine, a country can
not be undersold in any commodity, unless the rival country
has a stronger inducement than itself for devoting its labor
and capital to the production of the commodity; arising
from the fact that by doing so it occasions a greater saving
of labor and capital, to be shared between itself and its customers—a
greater increase of the aggregate produce of the
world. The underselling, therefore, though a loss to the
undersold country, is an advantage to the world at large; the
substituted commerce being one which economizes more of
the labor and capital of mankind, and adds more to their collective
wealth, than the commerce superseded by it. The
advantage, of course, consists in being able to produce the
commodity of better quality, or with less labor (compared
with other things); or perhaps not with less labor, but in
less time; with a less prolonged detention of the capital employed.
This may arise from greater natural advantages
(such as soil, climate, richness of mines); superior capability,
either natural or acquired, in the laborers; better division of
labor, and better tools, or machinery. But there is no place
left in this theory for the case of lower wages. This, however,
in the theories commonly current, is a favorite cause
of underselling. We continually hear of the disadvantage
under which the [American] producer labors, both in foreign
markets and even in his own, through the lower wages paid
by his foreign rivals. These lower wages, we are told, enable,
or are always on the point of enabling, them to sell at
lower prices, and to dislodge the [American] manufacturer
from all markets in which he is not artificially protected.</p>
<p class="tei tei-p" style="margin-bottom: 0.90em"><span style="font-size: 90%">
It will be remembered that, as we have before seen, international
trade, in actual practice, depends on comparative prices
within the same country (even though the exporter may not
consciously make a comparison). We send wheat abroad, because
it is low in price relatively to certain manufactured goods;
that is, we send the wheat, but we do not send the manufactured
goods. But, so far, this is considering only the comparative
prices in the same country. Yet we shall fail to realize in
actual practice the application of the above principles, when we
use the terms prices and money, if we do not admit that there
is in the matter of underselling a comparison, also, between the
absolute price of the goods in one country and the absolute
</span><span style="font-size: 90%">
price of the same goods in the competing country. For example,
wheat is not shipped to England unless the price is
lower here than there. If India or Morocco were to send wheat
into the English market in close competition with the United
States, and the price were to fall in London, it would mean that,
if we continued our shipments of wheat to England, we must
part with our wheat at a less advantage in the international
exchange. In the illustration already used, we must, for example,
offer more than seventeen bushels of wheat for ten cwts.
of iron. The fall in the price of wheat, without any change in
that of iron, implies the necessity of offering a greater quantity
of wheat for the same quantity of iron, perhaps nineteen or
twenty bushels for ten cwts. of iron. If the price went so low
as to require twenty-one bushels to pay for ten cwts. of iron,
then we should be entirely undersold; and the price here as
compared with the price in London would be an indication of
the fact. So that the comparison of prices here with prices
abroad is merely a register of the terms at which our international
exchanges are performed; but not the cause of the existence
of the international trade. If the price falls so low in
a foreign market that we can not sell wheat there, it simply
means that we have reached in the exchange ratios the limit of
our comparative advantages in wheat and iron; so that we are
obliged to offer twenty or more bushels of wheat for ten cwts.
of iron.
</span></p>
<p class="tei tei-p" style="margin-bottom: 0.90em"><span style="font-size: 90%">
But in all this it must be noted that this price must include
the return to capital also, and that it must be equal to
the usual reward for capital in other competing industries,
that is, the ordinary rate of profit. In exporting wheat from
the United States the capital engaged will insist on getting
the rate of profit to be found in other occupations to which
the capital can go, in the United States. Now, the price,
if it stands for the value (which is supposed to be governed
by cost of production in this case), is the sum out of which
wages and profits are paid. If the price were to fall in the
foreign market, then there might not be the means with which
to pay the usual rate of wages and the usual rate of profit
also. Then we should probably hear of complaints by the
shippers that there is no profit in the exportation of wheat, and
of a falling off in the trade. In other words, as the capitalist
is the one who manages the operation, and is the one first affected,
the diminution of advantage in foreign trade arising
from competition, generally shows itself first in lessened profits.
The price, then, is the means by which we determine
whether a certain article gives us that comparative advantage
which will insure a gain from international trade.
</span></p>
<p class="tei tei-p" style="margin-bottom: 0.90em"><span style="font-size: 90%">
An exportable article whose price in this country is low—since
</span><span style="font-size: 90%">
it is for this reason selected as an export—is one whose
cost is low. If the cost be low, it means that the industry
is very productive; that the same capital and labor produce
more for their exertion in this than in other industries. And
yet it is precisely in the most productive industries that higher
wages and profits can be, and are, paid. Although each article
is sold at a low price, the great quantity produced makes
the total sum, or value, out of which the industrial rewards,
profits, and wages, are paid, large. That is, the price may be
very low (lower, also, in direct comparison with prices abroad)
and yet pay the rate of wages and profits current in this country.
Consequently, although wages and profits may be very
high (relatively to older countries) in those industries of the
United States whose productiveness is great, yet the very fact
of this low cost, and consequently this low price (where competition
is effective), is that which fits the commodity for exportation.
We are, therefore, inevitably led to a position in
which we see that high wages and low prices naturally go
together in an exportable commodity. In practice, certainly,
the high wages do not, by raising the price, prevent us, by comparing
our price with English prices, from sending goods
abroad—because we send goods abroad from our most productive
employments. As an illustration of this principle, it is
found that the leading exports of the United States, in 1883,
were cotton, breadstuffs, provisions, tobacco, mineral oils, and
wood.
</span></p>
<p class="tei tei-p" style="margin-bottom: 0.90em"><span style="font-size: 90%">
But, since a direct comparison is in practice made between
prices here and prices in England (for example), in order to
determine whether the trade can be a profitable one, we constantly
hear it said that we can not send goods abroad because
our labor is so dear. It need scarcely be observed that we do
not hear this from those engaged in any of the extractive industries
just mentioned as furnishing large exports, which are
admittedly very productive; it is generally heard in regard to
certain kinds of manufactured goods. The difficulty arises
not with regard to articles in which we have the greatest advantage
in productiveness, but those in which we have a less
advantage. If the majority of occupations are so productive
as to assure a generally high reward to labor and capital
throughout the country, these less advantageously situated industries—not
being so productive as others (either from lack
of skill or good management, or high cost of machinery and
materials, or peculiarities of climate, or heavy taxation)—can
not pay the usual high reward to labor, and at the same time
get for the capitalist the same high reward he can everywhere
else receive at home. For, at a price low enough to warrant an
exportation, the quantity made by a given amount of labor and
</span><span style="font-size: 90%">
capital does not yield a total value so great as is given in the
majority of other occupations to the same amount of labor and
capital, and out of which the usual high wages and profits can
be paid. The less productiveness of an industry, compared with
other industries in the same country, then, is the real cause which
prevents it from competing with foreign countries consistently
with receiving the ordinary rate of profit. It is the high rate
of profits as well as the high rate of wages common in the
country which prevents selling abroad. It is absurd to say
that it is only high wages: it is just as much high profits.
Of course, if the less productive industries wish to compete
with England, and if they pay—as we know they must—the
high rate of wages due to the general productiveness of our
country's industries, they must submit to less profits for the
pleasure of having that particular desire. It is not possible that
we should produce everything equally well here; nor is it possible
that England should produce everything equally well. If
we wish to send any goods at all to England, we must receive
some goods from her. In order to get the gain arising from
our productiveness, we must earnestly wish that England should
have some commodity also in which she has a comparative advantage,
in order that any trade whatever may exist. It is not,
however, worth while, in my opinion, to go on in this discussion
to consider the position of those who would shut us off
from any and all foreign trade.
</span></p>
<p class="tei tei-p" style="margin-bottom: 0.90em"><span style="font-size: 90%">
Our present high wages should be a cause for congratulation,
because they are due to the generally high productiveness of our
resources, or, in other words, due to low cost; and it is to be
hoped that they may long continue high. We do not seem to
be in imminent danger of not having goods which we can export
in quantities which will buy for us all we may wish to import
from abroad. (See Chart </span><SPAN href="#Chart_XIII" class="tei tei-ref"><span style="font-size: 90%">No. XIII</span></SPAN><span style="font-size: 90%">, and note the vast
increase of exports at the same time that wages are known to be higher in
this country than abroad.) So long as wages continue high, we
may possibly be unwilling to see gratified that false and ignorant
desire which leads some people to think that we ought to
produce, equally well with any competitor in the world, everything
that is made. If, as was pointed out under the discussion
on cost of labor,</span><SPAN id="noteref_289" name="noteref_289" href="#note_289"><span class="tei tei-noteref"><span style="font-size: 60%; vertical-align: super">289</span></span></SPAN><span style="font-size: 90%"> we must necessarily connect with efficiency
of labor all natural advantages under which labor works,
it is easy to see that high wages are entirely consistent with
low prices; and that high wages do not prevent us to-day from
having an hitherto unequaled export trade. Even if all wages
and all profits were lower, it would, however, affect all industries
alike, and some would still be more productive relatively
</span><span style="font-size: 90%">
to others, and the same inequality would remain. If, however,
we learn to use our materials better, use machinery with more
effect on the quantity produced, adapt our industries to our
climate, get the raw products more cheaply, free ourselves from
excessive and unreasonable taxation, it would be difficult to
say what commodities we might not be able eventually to
manufacture in competition with the rest of the world. For
we have scarcely ever, as a country, had the advantage of such
conditions to aid us in our foreign trade.
</span></p>
<p class="tei tei-p" style="margin-bottom: 0.90em"><span style="font-size: 90%">
Mr. Mill now goes on to consider the suggestive fact that
wages are higher in England than on the Continent, and yet
that the English have no difficulty in underselling their Continental
rivals.
</span></p>
<p>
Before examining this opinion on grounds of principle,
it is worth while to bestow a moment's consideration upon
it as a question of fact. Is it true that the wages of manufacturing
labor are lower in foreign countries than in England,
in any sense in which low wages are an advantage to
the capitalist? The artisan of Ghent or Lyons may earn less
wages in a day, but does he not do less work? Degrees of
efficiency considered, does his labor cost less to his employer?
Though wages may be lower on the Continent, is not the
Cost of Labor, which is the real element in the competition,
very nearly the same? That it is so seems the opinion of
competent judges, and is confirmed by the very little difference
in the rate of profit between England and the Continental
countries. But, if so, the opinion is absurd that English
producers can be undersold by their Continental rivals
from this cause. It is only in America that the supposition
is <span lang="la" class="tei tei-foreign" xml:lang="la"><span style="font-style: italic">prima facie</span></span>
admissible. In America wages are much
higher than in England, if we mean by wages the daily earnings
of a laborer; but the productive power of American
labor is so great—its efficiency, combined with the favorable
circumstances in which it is exerted, makes it worth so much
to the purchaser—that the Cost of Labor is lower in America
than in England; as is proved by the fact that the general
rate of profits and of interest is very much higher.</p>
<SPAN name="toc240" id="toc240"></SPAN>
<h3><span>§ 3. Low wages enable a Country to undersell another, when Peculiar to certain branches of Industry.</span></h3>
<p>
But is it true that low wages, even in the sense of
low Cost of Labor, enable a country to sell cheaper in the
foreign market? I mean, of course, low wages which are
common to the whole productive industry of the country.</p>
<p>
If wages, in any of the departments of industry which
supply exports, are kept, artificially or by some accidental
cause, below the general rate of wages in the country, this
is a real advantage in the foreign market. It lessens the
<em class="tei tei-emph"><span style="font-style: italic">comparative</span></em> cost of production of those articles in relation
to others, and has the same effect as if their production required
so much less labor. Take, for instance, the case of
the United States in respect to certain commodities. In that
country tobacco and cotton, two great articles of export, are
produced by slave-labor, while food and manufactures generally
are produced by free laborers, who either work on
their own account or are paid by wages. In spite of the
inferior efficiency of slave-labor, there can be no reasonable
doubt that, in a country where the wages of free labor are
so high, the work executed by slaves is a better bargain to
the capitalist. To whatever extent it is so, this smaller cost
of labor, being not general, but limited to those employments,
is just as much a cause of cheapness in the products,
both in the home and in the foreign market, as if they had
been made by a less quantity of labor. If the slaves in the
Southern States were emancipated, and their wages rose to
the general level of the earnings of free labor in America,
that country might be obliged to erase some of the slave-grown
articles from the catalogue of its exports, and would
certainly be unable to sell any of them in the foreign market
at the present price. Their cheapness is partly an artificial
cheapness, which may be compared to that produced by a
bounty on production or on exportation; or, considering the
means by which it is obtained, an apter comparison would be
with the cheapness of stolen goods.</p>
<SPAN name="Chart_XV" id="Chart_XV" class="tei tei-anchor"></SPAN>
<p></p>
<ANTIMG src="images/chartxv.png" width-obs="700" height-obs="371" alt="Illustration: Chart XV." title="Chart XV." />Chart XV.
<span style="font-size: 90%">
How far Mr. Mill was in error may be seen by Chart </span><SPAN href="#Chart_XV" class="tei tei-ref"><span style="font-size: 90%">No.
XV</span></SPAN><span style="font-size: 90%">, which shows the enormous increase of cotton production
under the </span><span class="tei tei-hi"><span style="font-size: 90%; font-style: italic">régime</span></span><span style="font-size: 90%"> of free labor as compared with that
of slave-labor in the United States. The abolition of slavery
has been an economic gain to the South. Moreover, the exports
of raw cotton have increased from 644,327,921 pounds in
</span><span style="font-size: 90%">
1869, to 2,288,075,062 pounds in 1883; while for corresponding
years the exports of tobacco increased from 181,527,630 to
235,628,360 pounds. In other words, exports of tobacco were
increased by 30 per cent, and those of raw cotton by no less
than 255 per cent. Besides, the prices of cotton and tobacco
are no higher now than before 1850.
</span>
<p>
An advantage of a similar economical, though of a very
different moral character, is that possessed by domestic manufactures;
fabrics produced in the leisure hours of families
partially occupied in other pursuits, who, not depending for
subsistence on the produce of the manufacture, can afford to
sell it at any price, however low, for which they think it
worth while to take the trouble of producing. The workman
of Zürich is to-day a manufacturer, to-morrow again an
agriculturist, and changes his occupations with the seasons in
a continual round. Manufacturing industry and tillage advance
hand in hand, in inseparable alliance, and in this union
of the two occupations the secret may be found why the
simple and unlearned Swiss manufacturer can always go on
competing and increasing in prosperity in the face of those
extensive establishments fitted out with great economic and
(what is still more important) intellectual resources.</p>
<p>
In the case of these domestic manufactures, the comparative
cost of production, on which the interchange between
countries depends, is much lower than in proportion to the
quantity of labor employed. The work-people, looking to
the earnings of their loom for a part only, if for any part,
of their actual maintenance, can afford to work for a less remuneration
than the lowest rate of wages which can permanently
exist in the employments by which the laborer has to
support the whole expense of a family. Working, as they
do, not for an employer but for themselves, they may be
said to carry on the manufacture at no cost at all, except the
small expense of a loom and of the material; and the limit
of possible cheapness is not the necessity of living by their
trade, but that of earning enough by the work to make that
social employment of their leisure hours not disagreeable.</p>
<SPAN name="toc241" id="toc241"></SPAN>
<SPAN name="Book_III_Chapter_XX_Section_4" id="Book_III_Chapter_XX_Section_4" class="tei tei-anchor"></SPAN>
<h3><span>§ 4. —But not when common to All.</span></h3>
<p>
These two cases, of slave-labor and of domestic
manufactures, exemplify the conditions under which low
wages enable a country to sell its commodities cheaper in
foreign markets, and consequently to undersell its rivals, or
to avoid being undersold by them. But no such advantage
is conferred by low wages when common to all branches of
industry. General low wages never caused any country to
undersell its rivals, nor did general high wages ever hinder
it from doing so.</p>
<p>
To demonstrate this, we must turn to an elementary
principle which was discussed in a former
chapter.<SPAN id="noteref_290" name="noteref_290" href="#note_290"><span class="tei tei-noteref"><span style="font-size: 60%; vertical-align: super">290</span></span></SPAN> General
low wages do not cause low prices, nor high wages high
prices, within the country itself. General prices are not
raised by a rise of wages, any more than they would be
raised by an increase of the quantity of labor required in
all production. Expenses which affect all commodities equally
have no influence on prices. If the maker of broadcloth
or cutlery, and nobody else, had to pay higher wages, the
price of his commodity would rise, just as it would if he had
to employ more labor; because otherwise he would gain less
profit than other producers, and nobody would engage in the
employment. But if everybody has to pay higher wages,
or everybody to employ more labor, the loss must be submitted
to; as it affects everybody alike, no one can hope to get
rid of it by a change of employment; each, therefore, resigns
himself to a diminution of profits, and prices remain
as they were. In like manner, general low wages, or a general
increase in the productiveness of labor, does not make
prices low, but profits high. If wages fall (meaning here
by wages the cost of labor), why, on that account, should the
producer lower his price? He will be forced, it may be
said, by the competition of other capitalists who will crowd
into his employment. But other capitalists are also paying
lower wages, and by entering into competition with him
they would gain nothing but what they are gaining already.
The rate, then, at which labor is paid, as well as the quantity
of it which is employed, affects neither the value nor the
price of the commodity produced, except in so far as it is
peculiar to that commodity, and not common to commodities
generally.</p>
<span style="font-size: 90%">
However, without there being any change in the productiveness
of any industry, if the price of the article should rise,
for instance, from an increased demand, that would make the
total value arising from the products of the industry larger in
its purchasing power, and so there would be a larger sum to
be divided among labor and capital. If there be free competition,
more capital would move into this one industry under
the hope of larger profits, and so wages would rise. Therefore,
it is possible that high wages and high prices may go together,
but not as cause and effect. In fact, the change in
price generally precedes the change in wages. On the other
hand, while low wages are not the cause of low prices nor
high wages of high prices, yet the two may be found together,
as both due to a common cause, viz., the small or great value
of the total product.</span><SPAN id="noteref_291" name="noteref_291" href="#note_291"><span class="tei tei-noteref"><span style="font-size: 60%; vertical-align: super">291</span></span></SPAN>
<p>
Since low wages are not a cause of low prices in the
country itself, so neither do they cause it to offer its commodities
in foreign markets at a lower price. It is quite
true that, if the cost of labor is lower in America than in
England, America could sell her cottons to Cuba at a lower
price than England, and still gain as high a profit as the
English manufacturer. But it is not with the profit of the
English manufacturer that the American cotton-spinner will
make his comparison; it is with the profits of other American
capitalists. These enjoy, in common with himself, the
benefit of a low cost of labor, and have accordingly a high
rate of profit. This high profit the cotton-spinner must also
have: he will not content himself with the English profit.
It is true he may go on for a time at that lower rate, rather
than change his employment; and a trade may be carried
on, sometimes for a long period, at a much lower profit than
that for which it would have been originally engaged in.
Countries which have a low cost of labor and high profits do
not for that reason undersell others, but they do oppose a
more obstinate resistance to being undersold, because the producers
can often submit to a diminution of profit without
being unable to live, and even to thrive, by their business.
But this is all which their advantage does for them; and in
this resistance they will not long persevere when a change
of times which may give them equal profits with the rest of
their countrymen has become manifestly hopeless.</p>
<SPAN name="toc242" id="toc242"></SPAN>
<h3><span>§ 5. Low profits as affecting the carrying Trade.</span></h3>
<p>
It is worth while also to notice a third class of small,
but in this case mostly independent communities, which have
supported and enriched themselves almost without any productions
of their own (except ships and marine equipments),
by a mere carrying-trade, and commerce of entrepot; by buying
the produce of one country, to sell it at a profit in another.
Such were Venice and the Hanse Towns.</p>
<p>
When the Venetians became the agents of the general
commerce of Southern Europe, they had scarcely any competitors:
the thing would not have been done at all without
them, and there was really no limit to their profits except
the limit to what the ignorant feudal nobility could and
would give for the unknown luxuries then first presented to
their sight. At a later period competition arose, and the
profit of this operation, like that of others, became amenable
to natural laws. The carrying-trade was taken up by Holland,
a country with productions of its own and a large accumulated
capital. The other nations of Europe also had
now capital to spare, and were capable of conducting their
foreign trade for themselves: but Holland, having, from the
variety of circumstances, a lower rate of profit at home, could
afford to carry for other countries at a smaller advance on
the original cost of the goods than would have been required
by their own capitalists; and Holland, therefore, engrossed
the greatest part of the carrying-trade of all those countries
which did not keep it to themselves by navigation laws,<SPAN id="noteref_292" name="noteref_292" href="#note_292"><span class="tei tei-noteref"><span style="font-size: 60%; vertical-align: super">292</span></span></SPAN> constructed,
like those of England, for the express purpose.</p>
<span style="font-size: 90%">
In the United States, early in the century, a retaliatory
policy against England gave us a body of navigation laws
copied after the mediæval statutes of England and the Continent,
which still remain on the statute-book. They do not
permit an American to buy a vessel abroad and sail it under
our flag without paying enormous duties; a provision which
is intended to foster ship-building in the United States. Even
with this legislation, ships, as a fact, are not built here for
the foreign trade; and our ship-builders practically supply
the coasting-trade only (which is not open to foreigners). The
ability to buy ships anywhere, and enter them to registry under
our flag free of duty, is what is meant by the demand for
</span><span class="tei tei-q"><span style="font-size: 90%">“</span><span style="font-size: 90%">free ships.</span><span style="font-size: 90%">”</span></span><span style="font-size: 90%"> This, however, has to do with ship-building. But
ship-owning or ship-sailing, is quite distinct from it. The
ability to get as great a return from capital and labor invested
in a ship as from other occupations open to Americans is another
thing. Even if we had </span><span class="tei tei-q"><span style="font-size: 90%">“</span><span style="font-size: 90%">free ships,</span><span style="font-size: 90%">”</span></span><span style="font-size: 90%"> the higher returns in other
industries in our country, particularly as regards profits, might
cause capitalists naturally to neglect a less for a more productive
business. In 1884 Congress has very properly taken
away many vexatious restrictions upon ships, which diminished
the returns from ship-sailing, and it remains to be seen whether
we can thereby regain any of our foreign carrying-trade. At
present we have a very small tonnage even in that part of the
shipping engaged in carrying our own goods.
</span>
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